This is going to sound like a goofy question for Sage advice but perhaps others have had this debate at their game tables....
So I was playing a Fighter who had on her person a regular sword and a -1 cursed sword (GM dickery). We came across an encounter with a Werewolf. As such you need a +1 weapon to effect it. So I tried out the -1 weapon with the argument that since it was still magically imbued it should be able to effect a magical creature. Loud debate and page flipping ensued before the GM conceded my point and gave me a roll to hit with the -1 modifier. Do yis think this was a correct ruling or was it the pouty-faced, sad-girl eyes effect on the GM that gave me the ruling?
Good one Lass! keep your ears open
Executive Producer | Save or Die Podcast | Roll for Initiative Podcast
(570)865-4210 | http://SaveorDie.Info